uneverno
Active Member
Originally Posted by reefraff
http:///forum/post/3238264
This is where things get sticky. A waiting period does not infringe on the right to own a gun, but does a ban on a certain type of gun? I actually think there is a little wiggle room here but I don't think an all out ban on handguns in general can be allowed to stand. If they were to ban any handgun with a capacity of more than 6 rounds it might actually stand.
The state can do what they want as long as it isn't seen as an infringement. Just going to determine who's definition of infringe they use.
Again, agreed. A waiting period is not addressed in the Constitution so, to me, as long as it's still legal to purchase said weapon, no infringement has taken place as a result.
Banning a specific type of weapon, otoh, is a violation of the 2nd as far as I'm concerned. Round capacity is not addressed in the original document. Perhaps it should have been? I don't know.
The core problem in interpretation is that language is fluid. Like it or not, things change: verbiage, semantics, historical context, etc. What was written 200+ or 6000+ years ago is automatically subject to linguistic, contextual, translational and chronographical interpretation - for example, can you read and understand original Chaucer? That was English written only 400 years before the Constitution was. How 'bout Shakespeare? Only 150 years prior.
We're now 230+ years post. Could the language have changed as substantially since as it did prior?
I'd argue yes.
Word usage, definitions, sentence structure, colloquialisms, etc. have changed significantly in all of those interims. This, unfortunately, presents some complicated issues which are impossible to resolve with any sense of positivity.
http:///forum/post/3238264
This is where things get sticky. A waiting period does not infringe on the right to own a gun, but does a ban on a certain type of gun? I actually think there is a little wiggle room here but I don't think an all out ban on handguns in general can be allowed to stand. If they were to ban any handgun with a capacity of more than 6 rounds it might actually stand.
The state can do what they want as long as it isn't seen as an infringement. Just going to determine who's definition of infringe they use.
Again, agreed. A waiting period is not addressed in the Constitution so, to me, as long as it's still legal to purchase said weapon, no infringement has taken place as a result.
Banning a specific type of weapon, otoh, is a violation of the 2nd as far as I'm concerned. Round capacity is not addressed in the original document. Perhaps it should have been? I don't know.
The core problem in interpretation is that language is fluid. Like it or not, things change: verbiage, semantics, historical context, etc. What was written 200+ or 6000+ years ago is automatically subject to linguistic, contextual, translational and chronographical interpretation - for example, can you read and understand original Chaucer? That was English written only 400 years before the Constitution was. How 'bout Shakespeare? Only 150 years prior.
We're now 230+ years post. Could the language have changed as substantially since as it did prior?
I'd argue yes.
Word usage, definitions, sentence structure, colloquialisms, etc. have changed significantly in all of those interims. This, unfortunately, presents some complicated issues which are impossible to resolve with any sense of positivity.